Answer 1:
The odds are very easy to calculate. Simply divide the number of "valid" rolls against all possible rolls. For ease, you can write down all possible combination for the 2 dice.
1-1; 1-2; 1-3; 1-4....and so on, remember 1-4 and 4-1 are different rolls
There are 36 unique possible combination, and 6 of them are doubles, so that's 6/36 chances (and since 6 goes into 36, 6 times, this reduces to 1/6) or about 17%
Answer 2:
Another way to look at this problem, generically, is to assume we have an 'n' face dice. In most cases, dice have 6 faces (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6). But why not create a solution that works for any number of sides? Well, if we are trying to calculate the probability of rolling two dice (dice-1 and dice-2) of 'n' sides at the same time and having them turn up as doubles, only one of the dice really matters. Here's why. Dice-1 is guaranteed to land on a number 1-n. This will happen every time (on a fair dice, disregarding freak incidents). What we are trying to calculate is the probability that dice-2 will land on the SAME number as dice-1. Dice-2 can only land on one of 'n' values: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, ... , 'n'. For you non math folks, this just means it must land on a number from 1 to 'n' where 'n' is the number of sides on your dice. Out of all of the sides that dice-2 can PHYSICALLY land on, one of the sides MUST necessarily have the same as the value that dice-1 landed on. That is to say, if dice-1 landed on the value 3, there must be some chance that dice-2 will also land on the value 3. The probability of this occurring on a fair die is 1 divided by the total number of possible outcomes, which would be 'n'. So, really, there is a 1/n chance that dice-2 will land on the same number as dice-1. Thus, our probability for rolling doubles is simple 1/n. For our 6 sided dice example, our dice-1 lands on some value between 1 and 6 and there is a 1/6 chance dice-2 will match it.
The odds of rolling 6 out of 2 consecutive dice is 100/25.
The probability is 0.1241
1 in 12
I'm going to assume you mean rolling the same number twice in a row in 25 rolls. The first won't cause a double, so you just need to consider the odds of rolling the same number as the last for the last 24 rolls. The easier approach is to realize that the probability of rolling at least one double is 1 minus the probability of rolling no doubles. One roll has this probability of not rolling the same as the last: P(different number from last) = 5/6 Since they are independent events: P(no doubles in 25 rolls) = (5/6)24 Now the final probability, of at least one double, is 1 - (5/6)24
The probability of rolling a 1 on a die is 1/6 if you roll it once.
The odds of rolling a 7 are 1/6. The odds of rolling two in a row are 1/36. The odds of rolling an 11 are 1/18. The odds of rolling two in a row are 1/324. The odds of rolling doubles are 1/6. The odds of rolling double twice in a row are 1/36.
The odds of rolling 6 out of 2 consecutive dice is 100/25.
Odds of rolling ONE six - 6:1 Odds of rolling TWO sixes - 36:1 Odds of rolling two sixes, SIX times - 216:1
The probability is 0.1241
1 in 12
1/6 x 1/6 x 1/6 = 1/216 is the odds of getting three doubles in a row so I suppose the odds of not rolling three in a row is 215/216 or 99.54% chance.
The odds are 1:36
The odds of rolling any double number is 1:36
I believe the odds are about 60:1
0.5
The odds of not rolling a 1 or 2 with two dice is 35 in 36. The odds of doing that 25 times in a row is (35/36)25 or about 0.4945Note: The odds of not rolling a 1 is zero, so the answer degraded to the odds of not rolling a 2.===================================Opinion #2:-- There are 36 possible outcomes when 2 dice are rolled.-- Only one of the outcomes is a 2.-- So the probability of NOT rolling a 2 with 2 dice is 35/36 .-- In 25 consecutive rolls, the probability of never rolling a 2 is (35/36)25 = 49.45% .-- The 'odds' are 1,011 to 989 against it.
1/2