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No. But sin2a equals 1 minus cos2a ... and ... cos2a equals 1 minus sin2a
sin2a=
The proof that sin2A plus sin2B plus sin2c equals 4sinAsinBsinC lies in the fact that (sin 2A + sin 2B + sin 2C) = 4 sinA.sinB.sinC.
One definition of sine and cosine is with a unitary circle. In this case, the sine is simply equal to the y-coordinate, and the cosine, the x-coordinate. Since the hypothenuse is 1, the equation in the question follows directly from Pythagoras' Law: x2 + y2 = r2, x2 + y2 = 1, cos2A + sin2A = 1. You can also derive it from the alternative definition of sine and cosine (ratios in a right triangle).
as equal as, so equal as, more equal than, the most equal of.