Rewrite 1/cos x as (cos x)-1 and use chain rule.
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sin x/(1+cos x) + cos x / sin x Multiply by sin x (1+cos x) =[(sin^2 x + cos x(1+cos x) ] / sin x (1+cos x) = [(sin^2 x + cos x + cos^2 x) ] / sin x (1+cos x) sin^2 x + cos^2 x = 1 = (1+cos x) / sin x (1+cos x) = 1/sin x
1. Anything divided by itself always equals 1.
(cos x sin x) / (cos x sin x) = 1. The derivative of a constant, such as 1, is zero.
(sin x + cos x) / cosx = sin x / cos x + cosx / cos x = tan x + 1
The question is ambiguous: does it refer to 1/sin(x) + cos(x) or to 1/[sin(x)+cos(x)]?The question is ambiguous: does it refer to 1/sin(x) + cos(x) or to 1/[sin(x)+cos(x)]?The question is ambiguous: does it refer to 1/sin(x) + cos(x) or to 1/[sin(x)+cos(x)]?The question is ambiguous: does it refer to 1/sin(x) + cos(x) or to 1/[sin(x)+cos(x)]?