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If the multiplicative inverse exists then, by definition, the product is 1 which is rational.
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yes
The answer depends on whether the "opposite" means the multiplicative inverse or the additive inverse.
The multiplicative inverse of a number is the reciprocal of that number. In this case, the multiplicative inverse of 16 is 1/16. This is because when you multiply a number by its multiplicative inverse, the result is always 1.