let n , n+1,n+2 be the three consecutive positive integers
n=1,2,3,4,5.......
let n be 1 :[1,1+1,1+2]
[1,2,3] the third no. only is divisible by 3
let n be 2:[2,3,4] only the second no. is divisible by 3
let n be 3: {3,4,5] only the first no. is divisible by 3
let n be 4: [4,5,6} only the third no. is divisible by 3
let n be 5:[5,6,7] only the second no. is divisible by 3
let n be 6: [6,7,8] only the first no. is divisible by 3
let n be 7: [7,8,9] only the third no. is divisible by 3
let n be 8: [8,9,10] only the second no. is divisible by 3
IN ALL THE CASES ONLY ONE OF ALL THE TRIPLETS IS DIVISIBLE BY 3
HENCE PROVED
this method is given in ncert examplar
Mathematical induction is just a way of proving a statement to be true for all positive integers: prove the statement to be true about 1; then assume it to be true for a generic integer x, and prove it to be true for x + 1; it therefore must be true for all positive integers.
There are no two consecutive integers that add up to 72. You can prove it this way: Let our numbers be represented by the variables "a" and "b". We are told: a = b + 1 a + b = 72 So we can use substitution to solve for either variable: (b + 1) + b = 72 2b + 1 = 72 2b = 71 b = 35.5 But 35.5 is not an integer, so this condition can not be met.
There are no such consecutive integer as is so simple to prove! Suppose the first integer is x. Then the next (consecutive) integer is x+1. Then 2*x + 4*(x+1) = 30 So that 2x + 4x + 4 = 30 6x + 4 = 30 6x = 30 - 4 = 26 x = 26/6 which is NOT an integer.
Take any two integers, and subtract one from another, you will have another integer. If there was a situation where you could show that this statement is not true, then that would prove your hypothesis, but I cannot think of any.
False. let the integers be n, n+1 and n+2 3n+3 is there sum and we need this to be even for all integers n. if n is odd, then 3n is odd ( take n=5 3x5=15 odd) any odd number +3 is even. if n is even, then 3n is even and an even number plus and 3 is odd so the answer is false You could just say or prove it is false with a single counter example. Take the 3 consecutive integers, 2,3,4 their sum is 9 and you are done. I mentioned the 3n+3 so you can see why it is false for even set of 3 when the first of the 3 consecutive numbers is even.
Because 6*8 = 48 and 48/8 = 6
Let three consecutive integers be n, n+1 and n+2. If n is divisible by 3 then n+1 and n+2 cannot be divisible by 3 as these numbers will respectively leave remainders of 1 and 2. If n is not divisible by 3 then it will leave a remainder of 1 or 2. If n leaves a remainder of 1, then n+1 leaves a remainder of 2 and n+2 is therefore divisible by 3. If n leaves a remainder of 2, then n+1 is divisible by 3 and n+2 is not divisible by 3 as it leaves a remainder of 1.
There is something missing from your question: what about the two consecutive integers? Is the proof required that one of them is divisible by 2? Or that their product is (which amounts to the same thing)? Showing that one of two consecutive number is divisible by 2: Suppose your two numbers are n and (n+1). If n is divisible by 2, ie n = 2k, the result is shown. Otherwise assume n is not divisible by 2. In this case n = 2m+1. Then: (n+1) = ((2m+1)+1) = 2m + 2 = 2(m+1) which is a multiple of 2 and so divisible by 2. QED. Showing that exactly one of two consecutive integers is divisible by two is shown above with the addition to the first part: "as (n+1) = 2k+1 is not divisible by two and so only n is divisible by 2." To show the product is divisible by 2, show either n is divisible by 2 or (n+1) is as above, then the result follows as one of n and (n+1) is divisible by 2 and so their product is.
The statement cannot be proven because it is FALSE. If one of x and y is odd and the other is even then x2 + y2 MUST be odd. Also if x and y are even then x2 + y2 MUST be divisible by 4. The statement is only true if x and y are odd integers. Whether or not they are positive makes little difference.
2n can be split into 2 n's so: n+n then add one to one of the n's and subtract one from one of the n's n+1+n-1 ^two consecutive odd integers^
Mathematical induction is just a way of proving a statement to be true for all positive integers: prove the statement to be true about 1; then assume it to be true for a generic integer x, and prove it to be true for x + 1; it therefore must be true for all positive integers.
The sum of n consecutive integers is divisible by n when n is odd. It is not divisible by n when n is even. So in this case the answer is it is divisible by 25! Proof: Case I - n is odd: We can substitute 2m+1 (where m is an integer) for n. This lets us produce absolutely any odd integer. Let's look at the sum of any 2m+1 consecutive integers. a + a+d + a+2d + a+3d + ... + a+(n-1)d = n(first+last)/2 (In our problem, the common difference is 1 and this is an arithmetic series.) a + (a+1) + (a+2) + ... + (a+2m) = (2m+1)(2a+2m)/2 = (2m+1)(a+m) It is obvious that this is divisible by 2m+1, our original odd number. That proves case I when n is odd, not for case when it is even. Case II - n is even: We can substitute 2m for n. We have another arithmetic series: a + (a+1) + (a+2) + ... + (a+2m-1) = (2m)(2a+2m-1)/2 = m(2a+2m-1) It is not too hard to prove that this is not divisible by 2m... try it!
If m, n, and p are three consecutive integers, then one of them must be even. Let's say the even number is m. Since m is even, it is divisible by two, and so can be written as 2*k, where k is some integer. This means that m*n*p = 2*k*n*p. Since we are multiplying the quantity k*n*p by 2, it must be divisible by two, and therefore must be even.
There are no two consecutive integers that add up to 72. You can prove it this way: Let our numbers be represented by the variables "a" and "b". We are told: a = b + 1 a + b = 72 So we can use substitution to solve for either variable: (b + 1) + b = 72 2b + 1 = 72 2b = 71 b = 35.5 But 35.5 is not an integer, so this condition can not be met.
Call the two consecutive integers n and n+1. Their product is n(n+1) or n2 +n. For example if the integers are 1 and 2, then n would be 1 and n+1 is 2. Their product is 1x2=2 of course which is 12 +1=2 Try 2 and 3, their product is 6. With the formula we have 4+2=6. The point of the last two examples was it is always good to check your answer with numbers that are simple to use. That does not prove you are correct, but if it does not work you are wrong for sure!
4
The answer depends on which properties are being used to prove which rules.