Assuming there are six numbers drawn out of the set from 1 to 49, without replacement:
There are 15 out of 49 of these numbers that are prime. So the probability would be
(15 - 9)! / (49 - 43)! = (15 * 14 * 13 * 12 * 11 * 10) / (49 * 48 * 47 * 46 * 45 * 44)
= (24325271111131) / (27335172111231471) = (5 * 13) / (8 * 3 * 7 * 23 * 47)
= 65 / 181608
Think of watching the lottery draw. You have 6 numbers and there are 40 to draw from. On the first pick, you have a 6/40 chance of getting a match. If you're successful, then on the second pick you have a 5/39 chance on the next pick (because one number is gone from your card and the draw), and so on. Because all of the events are required to happen for you to get your 6 numbers, we multiply the individual probabilities together to get the overall probability. 6/40 x 5/39 x 4/38 x 3/37 x 2/36 x 1/35 = 1/3838380 So the chance of getting all six numbers is a little better than 1 in 4 million.
the probability is put into a fraction for you. 4/10 which is simplified to 2/5. 2/5=40% the probability you will bowl a strike is 40%.
20, 40, 50
The answer depends on how many cards are drawn. If 40 are drawn without replacement, from a normal deck, the probability is 1. If 3 are drawn the probability is 0!
If the probability of a person being left handed is .11, then the probability of a person being right handed is .89 (1.00 - .11). In a class of 40 people, there are 40! (40 factorial) = 40 x 39 x 38 x .... x 3 x 2 x 1 possible Permutations of students. Within this number, there are many that will yield exactly 5 left handed people. 40-P-5 is the number of Permutations of 5 within a class of 40 (sorry, can't use the correct formating here!): = 40! / (40 - 5) ! = 40! / 35! = 40 x 39 x 38 x 37 x 36 Since we don't care about order..... we need to factor out the number of identical permutations. 40-C-5 = 40-P-5 / 5! So.... (40 x 39 x 38 x 37 x 36) / (5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1) = 658,008 Now, what is the probability of any one such combination? (.89 to the power 35) x (.11 to the power 5) = 0.000000273 So the probability of exactly 5 left handed people in the class is 658,008 x .000000273 = 17.9408137 %
There is no way to know what the numbers will be in the 1:40 Rajshri lottery. Numbers are selected at random in a lottery.
The numbers on the lottery ticket are: 17, 44, 4, 26, 37, 40, and 22
The probability is 11/21.
To calculate the odds of winning lotto where choose say 6 numbers out of 40 for example the calculation is 40X39X38X37X36X35 divided by 6X5X4X3X2X1 or about 3.8 million to 1 on any one line. If you have 45 numbers to choose from it would be 45X44X43X42X41X40/6X......etc or about 8.2 million to 1.
They are: 29, 52, 5, 38, 40, 4
Think of watching the lottery draw. You have 6 numbers and there are 40 to draw from. On the first pick, you have a 6/40 chance of getting a match. If you're successful, then on the second pick you have a 5/39 chance on the next pick (because one number is gone from your card and the draw), and so on. Because all of the events are required to happen for you to get your 6 numbers, we multiply the individual probabilities together to get the overall probability. 6/40 x 5/39 x 4/38 x 3/37 x 2/36 x 1/35 = 1/3838380 So the chance of getting all six numbers is a little better than 1 in 4 million.
They have probably come up in some lottery in some country.
1/10
17, 23, 32, 40, 12
40/50
40 and any of its factors.
40 out of 10 is not possible so the probability is 0.