First work out the probability of the first two coins being heads and then the last being tails. This is 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 which is 1/8
The next step is to find out how many different orders the coins can come in. In this case there are 3 possible orders (HHT, HTH, and THH). Multiply this by the above probability and you get 3/8. Therefore the probability of getting two heads and one tail is 3/8
It is the theory of what might happen, but not actually what happens. In theory, if you spin a coin 100 times, it should come up on heads 50 times, as there is a 1 in 2 chance of you getting heads on each spin. If you actually do spin a coin 100 times, the total of heads is the experimental probability, so what you actually get. That may not be 50. It is likely to be close to 50 though.
The probability of getting a 2 is 1 - (1/6)60 = 1 - 2.05*10-47
The answer depends on the shape of the spinner.
I'm going to assume you're looking for the probability of getting three heads out of three coin spins and that you're using a fair coin. For coin spins, theoretical probability is very simple. The probability of getting three heads in a row is 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/8. This means that if you tossed a coin three times, you'd expect to see three heads once every 8 trials. For experimental probability you need to define clear trials, for this experiment you can't just spin a coin over and over and count the number of times you see three heads in a row, for example, if you threw the following: H T H H T T H H H H H T T H T T T you have three cases where you have three heads in a row, but they all overlap so these are not independent trials and cannot be compared to the theoretical result. When conducting your experiment, you know that if you get a T in your trial, it doesn't matter what comes after, that trial has already failed to get three heads in a row. The trial is deemed a success if you get three heads in a row, naturally. As a result, if you threw the above sequence, you would to determine your experimental probability in the following way: H T fail H H T fail T fail H H H success H H T fail T fail H T fail T fail T fail In this example we have 8 trials and one success, therefore the experimental probability is 1/8. The sample variance (look it up), however is also 1/8, meaning that all you really know is that the experimental probability could be anywhere between 0 and 1/4. The only way to get the variance down (and therefore reduce your confidence interval) is to perform more and more trials. It's unlikely for the theoretical probability and experimental probability to be EXACTLY the same but the more trials you do, the more the experimental probability will converge on the theoretical probability.
The experimental probability, by definition, can only be determined after you have carried out the experiment!
It is the theory of what might happen, but not actually what happens. In theory, if you spin a coin 100 times, it should come up on heads 50 times, as there is a 1 in 2 chance of you getting heads on each spin. If you actually do spin a coin 100 times, the total of heads is the experimental probability, so what you actually get. That may not be 50. It is likely to be close to 50 though.
It is 0.5
The second part of the question is not specific enough. Is it 2 on the roll of a die, a spin of a spinner, a card from a deck, a roulette wheel?
The probability is 5/6. The die has 6 sides so 5 of them are not the "4". The probability of getting the four is 1/6.
The probability of getting a 2 is 1 - (1/6)60 = 1 - 2.05*10-47
one out of six
2/3
it depends on how many other colors there are.
1/3
1/16
Not getting a "6" from a spin.
The answer depends on the shape of the spinner.