The probability that two dice rolled will each have the same value is 1 in 6.
The experimental probability can't be predicted. If it could, then there wouldn't be any reason to do experiments. The probability of rolling a die 50 times depends on how passionately you want to see what's going to happen if you do. There are six different ways a single die can come up on each roll. So the probability of rolling any particular number between 1 and 6 on each roll is 1/6 or (16 and 2/3) percent. If it isn't, then the die isn't a fair die. The die has no memory, so the probability of any particular number is the same on every roll, even if the same number has or hasn't come up on the previous 100 or 1,000 consecutive rolls. If the probability of any outcome depends on what has come before, then the laws of probability aren't operating, and it's not an honest game.
The question asks "What is the probability of rolling either an even number on the first roll or a 1 on the second roll?" These events are independent from each other as the outcome of the second roll is not affected by the outcome of the first roll. However, these events are non-mutually exclusive, meaning that these events can both occur at the same time.The probability of rolling an even number on the first roll is 3/6 because 2, 4, and 6 are even numbers and a six-sided die has six possible numbers.The probability of rolling a 1 on the second roll is 1/6.If these two probabilities are added together, we will have "double counted" the event where an even number is rolled on the first roll and a 1 is rolled on the second roll. To correct for this, we must subtract the probability of both events occurring.The probability that both events occur is 3/36, because 3/6 * 1/6 = 3/36.Now, the probability of rolling either an even number on the first roll or a 1 on the second roll is:3/6 + 1/6 - 3/36= 18/36 + 6/36 - 3/36= 21/36= 7/12
The probability that 2 people have the same number is 2 out of 10
If the individuals can't roll their tongue, then the child won't be able to roll it's tongue. If they can roll their tongue, then the child will be able to roll it's tongue. it just depends.
I am assuming that this die is fair die and the coin is not biased. The probability of getting a number less than 3 is the probability of rolling a 1 or a 2 i.e. 1/6 + 1/6 = 2/6 which simplifies to 1/3. The probability of getting a head when you flip a fair coin is 1/2. Both are independent events, so the probability of getting a number less than 3 and getting a head is 1/3 x 1/2 = 1/6. One can get the same answer from a sample space diagram
You roll 1 red and 1 white die. What is the probability that the number on the red die is the same as the number on the white die?
The same as rolling an odd number... 1:2 or 50% chance.
What is the probability that the letter P is picked when a letter is picked at random from the word STUPID!
0.25 ( P = 0.5 each time)
The first roll doesn't matter for probability, it just sets the number to be rolled by the other two. So: P(rolling the same number three times) = P(rolling a particular number)2 = (1/6)2 = 1/36
The probability of (1 or 2 or 3) on the first (or any) roll is 1/2 = 50% .The probability of (4 or 5 or 6) on the second (or any) roll is 1/2 = 50% .The probability of exactly that result on two rolls is (1/2 x 1/2)= (50% x 50%) = 1/4 = 25% .
Assuming they are fair, regular dice, the probability is 1/18.
The experimental probability can't be predicted. If it could, then there wouldn't be any reason to do experiments. The probability of rolling a die 50 times depends on how passionately you want to see what's going to happen if you do. There are six different ways a single die can come up on each roll. So the probability of rolling any particular number between 1 and 6 on each roll is 1/6 or (16 and 2/3) percent. If it isn't, then the die isn't a fair die. The die has no memory, so the probability of any particular number is the same on every roll, even if the same number has or hasn't come up on the previous 100 or 1,000 consecutive rolls. If the probability of any outcome depends on what has come before, then the laws of probability aren't operating, and it's not an honest game.
The question asks "What is the probability of rolling either an even number on the first roll or a 1 on the second roll?" These events are independent from each other as the outcome of the second roll is not affected by the outcome of the first roll. However, these events are non-mutually exclusive, meaning that these events can both occur at the same time.The probability of rolling an even number on the first roll is 3/6 because 2, 4, and 6 are even numbers and a six-sided die has six possible numbers.The probability of rolling a 1 on the second roll is 1/6.If these two probabilities are added together, we will have "double counted" the event where an even number is rolled on the first roll and a 1 is rolled on the second roll. To correct for this, we must subtract the probability of both events occurring.The probability that both events occur is 3/36, because 3/6 * 1/6 = 3/36.Now, the probability of rolling either an even number on the first roll or a 1 on the second roll is:3/6 + 1/6 - 3/36= 18/36 + 6/36 - 3/36= 21/36= 7/12
There are six possible outcomes. Assuming the probability of each outcome is the same (dice has no defects), then you are likely to roll the number two, 100/6=50/3=16.67 times.
Gary's chances of rolling either a 4 or a 6 are the same for any of the other numbers on the cube. The probability is 1 out of 3.
The same probability of rolling a 6 on any roll, you have 1 sixth of a chance or 1 out of 6 or 1/6. The 8th roll is independent from all remaining rolls.