It helps to convert this kind of equation into one that has only sines and cosines, by using the basic definitions of the other functions in terms of sines and cosines. sin x / (1 - cos x) = csc x + cot x sin x / (1 - cos x) = 1 / sin x + cos x / sin x Now it should be easy to do some simplifications: sin x / (1 - cos x) = (1 + cos x) / sin x Multiply both sides by 1 + cos x: sin x (1 + cos) / ((1 - cos x)(1 + cos x)) = (1 + cos x)2 / sin x sin x (1 + cos) / (1 - cos2x) = (1 + cos x)2 / sin x sin x (1 + cos) / sin2x = (1 + cos x)2 / sin x sin x (1 + cos x) / sin x = (1 + cos x)2 1 + cos x = (1 + cos x)2 1 = 1 + cos x cos x = 0 So, cos x can be pi/2, 3 pi / 2, etc. In some of the simplifications, I divided by a factor that might be equal to zero; this has to be considered separately. For example, what if sin x = 0? Check whether this is a solution to the original equation.
Sin(30) = 1/2 Sin(45) = root(2)/2 Sin(60) = root(3)/2 Cos(30) = root(3)/2 Cos(45) = root(2)/2 Cos(60) = 1/2 Tan(30) = root(3)/3 Tan(45) = 1 Tan(60) = root(3) Csc(30) = 2 Csc(45) = root(2) Csc(60) = 2root(3)/3 Sec(30) = 2root(3)/3 Sec(45) = root(2) Sec(60) = 2 Cot(30) = root(3) Cot(45) = 1 Cot(60) = root(3)/3
Well I don't exactly get "the solution", but simplifying the equation is quite simple. Maybe that's what you're looking for. Here are the steps for simplifying it. costancsc = 1 1. Change tan to sin/cos 2. Change csc to 1/sin cos(sin/cos)(1/sin) = 1 And as you can now see, the first cos cancels with the second one under the sin/cos fraction, and the first sin cancels with the second one under the 1/sin fraction consequentially leaving you with 1 = 1. For a better look, notice this fraction when all three parts are combined cos * sin * 1 ---------------- cos * sin See how the cos and sin cancel each other leaving you with 1 * 1 * 1 which is just 1. Therefore the final simplification is just 1 = 1. I hope this helps!
No. Cosine, along with sec, is an even function. The odd functions are sin, tan, csc, and cot. The reason for this is because is you take the opposite of the y-value for the cosine function, the overall value of the function is not affected.Take, for example, cos(60 degrees), which equals POSITIVE 1/2.If you flip it over the x-axis, making the y's negative, it becomes cos(-60 degrees), or cos(300 degrees). This equals POSITIVE 1/2.Now let's look at an odd function. For example, sin(30 degrees) equals POSITIVE 1/2. Now take the opposite of this.sin(-30 degrees), or sin(330 degrees), equals NEGATIVE 1/2. This is because it is found in the fourth quadrant, where the y's are negative. Sine of theta, by definition, is y divided by r. If y is negative, sine is negative.
csc(x) = 1/sin(x) = +/- 1/sqrt(1-cos^2(x))
'csc' = 1/sin'tan' = sin/cosSo it must follow that(cos) (csc) / (tan) = (cos) (1/sin)/(sin/cos) = (cos) (1/sin) (cos/sin) = (cos/sin)2
cot(x)=1/tan(x)=1/(sin(x)/cos(x))=cos(x)/sin(x) csc(x)=1/sin(x) sec(x)=1/cos(x) Therefore, (csc(x))2/cot(x)=(1/(sin(x))2)/cot(x)=(1/(sin(x))2)/(cos(x)/sin(x))=(1/(sin(x))2)(sin(x)/cos(x))=(1/sin(x))*(1/cos(x))=csc(x)*sec(x)
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Ah, secant, annoying as always. Why don't we use its definition as 1/cos x and csc as 1/sin x? We will do that Also, please write down the equation, there is at least TWO different equations you are talking about. x^n means x to the power of n 1/(sin x) ^2 is csc squared x, it's actually csc x all squared 1/(cos x) ^2 in the same manner.
[sin - cos + 1]/[sin + cos - 1] = [sin + 1]/cosiff [sin - cos + 1]*cos = [sin + 1]*[sin + cos - 1]iff sin*cos - cos^2 + cos = sin^2 + sin*cos - sin + sin + cos - 1iff -cos^2 = sin^2 - 11 = sin^2 + cos^2, which is true,
It helps to convert this kind of equation into one that has only sines and cosines, by using the basic definitions of the other functions in terms of sines and cosines. sin x / (1 - cos x) = csc x + cot x sin x / (1 - cos x) = 1 / sin x + cos x / sin x Now it should be easy to do some simplifications: sin x / (1 - cos x) = (1 + cos x) / sin x Multiply both sides by 1 + cos x: sin x (1 + cos) / ((1 - cos x)(1 + cos x)) = (1 + cos x)2 / sin x sin x (1 + cos) / (1 - cos2x) = (1 + cos x)2 / sin x sin x (1 + cos) / sin2x = (1 + cos x)2 / sin x sin x (1 + cos x) / sin x = (1 + cos x)2 1 + cos x = (1 + cos x)2 1 = 1 + cos x cos x = 0 So, cos x can be pi/2, 3 pi / 2, etc. In some of the simplifications, I divided by a factor that might be equal to zero; this has to be considered separately. For example, what if sin x = 0? Check whether this is a solution to the original equation.
Sin(30) = 1/2 Sin(45) = root(2)/2 Sin(60) = root(3)/2 Cos(30) = root(3)/2 Cos(45) = root(2)/2 Cos(60) = 1/2 Tan(30) = root(3)/3 Tan(45) = 1 Tan(60) = root(3) Csc(30) = 2 Csc(45) = root(2) Csc(60) = 2root(3)/3 Sec(30) = 2root(3)/3 Sec(45) = root(2) Sec(60) = 2 Cot(30) = root(3) Cot(45) = 1 Cot(60) = root(3)/3
Start with the identity (sin a)2 + (cos a)2 = 1. Divide both sides by (sin a)2 to get1 + (cot a)2 = (csc a)2. Then subtract 1 from both sides. (cot a)2 = (csc a)2 - 1.
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Well I don't exactly get "the solution", but simplifying the equation is quite simple. Maybe that's what you're looking for. Here are the steps for simplifying it. costancsc = 1 1. Change tan to sin/cos 2. Change csc to 1/sin cos(sin/cos)(1/sin) = 1 And as you can now see, the first cos cancels with the second one under the sin/cos fraction, and the first sin cancels with the second one under the 1/sin fraction consequentially leaving you with 1 = 1. For a better look, notice this fraction when all three parts are combined cos * sin * 1 ---------------- cos * sin See how the cos and sin cancel each other leaving you with 1 * 1 * 1 which is just 1. Therefore the final simplification is just 1 = 1. I hope this helps!
tan^2(x) Proof: cos^2(x)+sin^2(x)=1 (Modified Pythagorean theorem) sin^2(x)=1-cos^2(x) (Property of subtraction) cos^2(x)-1/cos^2(x)=? sin^2(x)/cos^2(x)=? (Property of substitution) sin(x)/cos(x) * sin(x)/cos(x) = tan(x) * tan(x) (Definition of tanget) = tan^2(x)