0
y=tanx cannot be expressed as a Fourier series, since it has infinite number of infinite discontinuity.
Dirichlet’s condition or the sufficient condition for a function f(x) to be expressed as a Fourier series.
- f(x) is single valued, finite and periodic.
- f(x) has a finite number of finite discontinuities.
- f(x) has a finite number of maxima and minima.
- f(x) has no infinite discontinuity.
Add your answer:
Earn +20 pts
How can arccot of tanx be simplified?
There is not much that can be done by way of simplification. Suppose arccot(y) = tan(x) then y = cot[tan(x)] = 1/tan(tan(x)) Now cot is NOT the inverse of tan, but its reciprocal. So the expression in the first of above equation cannot be simplified further. Similarly tan[tan(x)] is NOT tan(x)*tan(x) = tan2(x)
How do you solve tan squared theta - tan theta equals 0?
Let x = theta, since it's easier to type, and is essentially the same variable. Since tan^2(x)=tan(x), you know that tan(x) must either be 1 or zero for this statement to be true. So let tan(x)=0, and solve on your calculator by taking the inverse. Similarly for, tan(x)=1
Is tan squared x equal tan x squared?
Yes. Both expressions are the same.
What is the period of tan x?
The period of the function y= tan(x) is pie The periods of the functions y= cos(x) and y= sin(x) is 2pie
What angle do you need for a gradient of 1 in 20?
If the angle is x radians, then tan(x) = 1/20 = 0.05 So x = tan-1(0.05) = 0.04996 radians = 2.86 degrees (approx)
Differences between full range Fourier series and a Half range Fourier series?
half range--- 0 to x full range--- -x to x
How you learn fourier series in online?
x
Sec x times sin x divided by tan x?
1 (sec x)(sin x /tan x = (1/cos x)(sin x)/tan x = (sin x/cos x)/tan x) = tan x/tan x = 1
What is the answer to cot squared x - tan squared x equals 0?
cot2x-tan2x=(cot x -tan x)(cot x + tan x) =0 so either cot x - tan x = 0 or cot x + tan x =0 1) cot x = tan x => 1 / tan x = tan x => tan2x = 1 => tan x = 1 ou tan x = -1 x = pi/4 or x = -pi /4 2) cot x + tan x =0 => 1 / tan x = -tan x => tan2x = -1 if you know about complex number then infinity is the solution to this equation, if not there's no solution in real numbers.
Which expression has the same value as tan(-x) for all values for x?
tan(-x) = -tan(x)
How can arccot of tanx be simplified?
There is not much that can be done by way of simplification. Suppose arccot(y) = tan(x) then y = cot[tan(x)] = 1/tan(tan(x)) Now cot is NOT the inverse of tan, but its reciprocal. So the expression in the first of above equation cannot be simplified further. Similarly tan[tan(x)] is NOT tan(x)*tan(x) = tan2(x)
Sin x Tan x equals Sin x?
No. Tan(x)=Sin(x)/Cos(x) Sin(x)Tan(x)=Sin2(x)/Cos(x) Cos(x)Tan(x)=Sin(x)
What does cos divided by sin equal?
tan x
What is tan x csc x?
tan(x)*csc(x) = sec(x)
What is cos x tan x simlpified?
The definition of tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x). By this property, cos(x)tan(x) = sin(x).
What is the fourier transform of Tan function?
tanx = 2*(sin2x - sin4x + sin6x - ... )However, be warned that this series is very slow to converge.
If for a triangle abc tan a-b plus tan b-c plus tan c-a equals 0 then what can you say about the triangle?
tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) + tan (C-A)=0 tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) - tan (A-C)=0 tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) = tan (A-C) (A-B) + (B-C) = A-C So we can solve tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) = tan (A-C) by first solving tan x + tan y = tan (x+y) and then substituting x = A-B and y = B-C. tan (x+y) = (tan x + tan y)/(1 - tan x tan y) So tan x + tan y = (tan x + tan y)/(1 - tan x tan y) (tan x + tan y)tan x tan y = 0 So, tan x = 0 or tan y = 0 or tan x = - tan y tan(A-B) = 0 or tan(B-C) = 0 or tan(A-B) = - tan(B-C) tan(A-B) = 0 or tan(B-C) = 0 or tan(A-B) = tan(C-B) A, B and C are all angles of a triangle, so are all in the range (0, pi). So A-B and B-C are in the range (- pi, pi). At this point I sketched a graph of y = tan x (- pi < x < pi) By inspection I can see that: A-B = 0 or B-C = 0 or A-B = C-B or A-B = C-B +/- pi A = B or B = C or A = C or A = C +/- pi But A and C are both in the range (0, pi) so A = C +/- pi has no solution So A = B or B = C or A = C A triangle ABC has the property that tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) + tan (C-A)=0 if and only if it is isosceles (or equilateral).
