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Sorry, but cos(50)sin(40) - cos(40)sin(50) is -0.1736, which is not even close to sin(90) which is 1.

This does not work in radians, either. Please restate your question.

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Q: Prove that sin 90 equals cos 50sin 40- cos 40 sin 50?
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How tan9-tan27-tan63 tan81 equals 4?

tan(9) + tan(81) = sin(9)/cos(9) + sin(81)/cos(81)= {sin(9)*cos(81) + sin(81)*cos(9)} / {cos(9)*cos(81)} = 1/2*{sin(-72) + sin(90)} + 1/2*{sin(72) + sin(90)} / 1/2*{cos(-72) + cos(90)} = 1/2*{sin(-72) + 1 + sin(72) + 1} / 1/2*{cos(-72) + 0} = 2/cos(72) since sin(-72) = -sin(72), and cos(-72) = cos(72) . . . . . (A) Also tan(27) + tan(63) = sin(27)/cos(27) + sin(63)/cos(63) = {sin(27)*cos(63) + sin(63)*cos(27)} / {cos(27)*cos(63)} = 1/2*{sin(-36) + sin(90)} + 1/2*{sin(72) + sin(36)} / 1/2*{cos(-36) + cos(90)} = 1/2*{sin(-36) + 1 + sin(36) + 1} / 1/2*{cos(-36) + 0} = 2/cos(36) since sin(-36) = -sin(36), and cos(-36) = cos(36) . . . . . (B) Therefore, by (A) and (B), tan(9) - tan(27) - tan(63) + tan(81) = tan(9) + tan(81) - tan(27) - tan(63) = 2/cos(72) – 2/cos(36) = 2*{cos(36) – cos(72)} / {cos(72)*cos(36)} = 2*2*sin(54)*sin(18)/{cos(72)*cos(36)} . . . . . . . (C) But cos(72) = sin(90-72) = sin(18) so that sin(18)/cos(72) = 1 and cos(36) = sin(90-36) = sin(54) so that sin(54)/cos(36) = 1 and therefore from C, tan(9) – tan(27) – tan(63) + tan(81) = 2*2*1*1 = 4