When you multiply both sides of the equation with the multiplicative inverse of the coefficient then the coefficient becomes one.
1/2*x =5
2*1/2*x=2*5
1x=10
x=10
Assuming the question is about the multiplicative inverse, the answer is, -1. It is its own multiplicative inverse.
-9; the multiplicative inverse: -1/9
The multiplicative inverse of a number is the reciprocal of that number. In this case, the multiplicative inverse of -0.25 is -1 / -0.25, which simplifies to -4. This is because multiplying a number by its multiplicative inverse results in a product of 1, the multiplicative identity.
Yes. Both the additive inverse and the multiplicative inverse would be irrational in this case. For example, if a and b are integers, a/b is rational by definition; in this case, b/a would also be rational, being the ratio of two integers.
The multiplicative inverse of -24/7 is -7/24
If the multiplicative inverse exists then, by definition, the product is 1 which is rational.
No, it is not. 3/5 is rational and its multiplicative inverse is 5/3 which is not an integer.
Yes, and for any non-zero rational x, the multiplicative inverse is 1/x.
The inverse function of multiplication is division.
of course
yes
Yes.
help me
The multiplicative inverse of a number is its reciprocal, meaning the multiplicative inverse of the rational number a/b is b/a. In the specialized case for integers, the multiplicative inverse of n is 1/n. This is due to the fact that a/b * b/a = 1 and n * 1/n = 1, which is the definition of a multiplicative inverse. More succinctly, to find the multiplicative inverse you "flip" the fraction or integer around to its reciprocal. This is the number that when multiplied with the original number results in a product of 1.
The answer depends on whether the "opposite" means the multiplicative inverse or the additive inverse.
All rational numbers, with the exception of zero (0), have a multiplicative inverse. In fact, all real numbers (again, except for zero) have multiplicative inverses, though the inverses of irrational numbers are themselves irrational. Even imaginary numbers have multiplicative inverses (the multiplicative inverse of 5i is -0.2i - as you can see the inverse itself is also imaginary). Even complex numbers (the sum of an imaginary number and a real number) have multiplicative inverses (the inverse of [5i + 2] is [-5i/29 + 2/29] - similar to irrational and imaginary numbers, the inverse of a complex number is itself complex). The onlynumber, in any set of numbers, that does not have a multiplicative inverse is zero.
Assuming the question is about the multiplicative inverse, the answer is, -1. It is its own multiplicative inverse.