It might have been possible to answer the question if you had bothered to include any equations below. But since you haven't there can be no answer.
An inverse, without any qualification, is taken to be the multiplicative inverse. is The inverse of a number, x (x not 0), is 1 divided by x. Any number multiplied by its inverse must be equal to 1. There is also an additive inverse. For any number y, the additive inverse is -y. And the sum of the two must always be 0.
The inverse if cosine 0.55 is 0.55
Always, unless the original number is zero. This does not have an inverse.
The multiplicative inverse of a number is any number that will multiply by it to make zero. Here, the multiplicative inverse of -6 is -(1/6), or negative one sixth.
To get the inverse log function, press 2ND and then choose 10x. (Above LOG.) To get the inverse of a natural log function, press 2ND and then choose ex. (Above LN.)
The inverse of the inverse is the original function, so that the product of the two functions is equivalent to the identity function on the appropriate domain. The domain of a function is the range of the inverse function. The range of a function is the domain of the inverse function.
To find the inverse of a function, simply switch the variables x and y. So for the function y=7x+3, the inverse would be x=7y+3, or y=(x-3)/7.
No. The inverse of an exponential function is a logarithmic function.
The original function's RANGE becomes the inverse function's domain.
-6 is a number, not a function and so there is not an inverse function.
The inverse of the cubic function is the cube root function.
X squared is not an inverse function; it is a quadratic function.
The inverse function means the opposite calculation. The inverse function of "add 6" would be "subtract 6".
Range
Assuming the domain and range are both the real numbers (or rationals): Yes, it is 1 to 1 Yes, it is onto and the inverse is x = (y-3)/4
No. A simple example of this is y = x2; the inverse is x = y2, which is not a function.