Assuming you're using pi in the classic geometric sense, the ratio of a circle's circumference to it's diameter, then derivative of the expression would be 0 as it has no rate of change.
If you intend to use pi as a variable, then it's derivative would be 2pi.
it is pi..... wait no it isnt.....pi squared to the one half power is not pi...
pi times the radius squared pi r squared
Area of a circle = pi*radius2 measured in square units
SA=2(pi times r squared) + h(pi 2 r) or (easier way) 2 pi r squared + 2 pi r h
Pi r squared is the formula for the area of a circle. 2 pi r squared is twice that.
f(x)=(pi2)x=pi2x. The derivative of kx=ln(k)*kx, so f'(x)=2ln(pi)*pi2x (with chain rule).
y = Sin(pi) = 0 Then its derivative is dy/dx = Cos(pi). = -1
pi squared = approximately 9.8696044
pi squared is 9.869604401... pi cubed is 31.00627668
The derivative with respect to 'x' of sin(pi x) ispi cos(pi x)
it is pi..... wait no it isnt.....pi squared to the one half power is not pi...
the derivative of 3x is 3 the derivative of x cubed is 3 times x squared
The anti-derivative of any constant c, is just c*x. Thus, the antiderivative of pi is pi*x. We can verify this by taking the derivative of pi*x, which gives us pi.
No because pi still remains as an irrational when squared.
19.7392088 is also = to pi for instince infinaty=pi = never tnding so the formlea infinity=pi.
pi times the radius squared pi r squared
x squared