As a first step, I would convert everything to sines and cosines.
sin x cot x = sec x - cos x
thus becomes:
(sin x) (cos x / sin x) = (1 / cos x) - cos x
Simplifying:
cos x = 1 / cos x - cos x
It doesn't look as though they are equal. In fact, if you do the calculations for some specific angle, e.g. 30 degrees, you see that they are not.
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(tanx+cotx)/tanx=(tanx/tanx) + (cotx/tanx) = 1 + (cosx/sinx)/(sinx/cosx)=1 + cos2x/sin2x = 1+cot2x= csc2x This is a pythagorean identity.
(1 - csc2x)/(sinx*cotx) = -cot2x/sinxcotx = -cotx/sinx = -(cosx/sinx)/sinx = -cosx/sin2x = -cosx/(1-cos2x) = cosx/(cos2x - 1)
There is no sensible or useful simplification.
secx = 1/cosxand 1/cotx = tanx, therefore1/cosx + tanx = 1 + sinx/cosx, andsin/cos = tanx, therefore1/cosx + tanx = 1 + tanx, therefore1/cosx = 1, therfore1 = cosx.So, therfore, it is not neccesarily true.But if you meansecx plus 1 divided by cotx equals (1 plus sinx) divided by cosx(this is probably what you mean) Let's start over!secx = 1/cosxand 1/cotx = tanx, therefore1/cosx + tanx = (1+sinx)/cosx therefore1/cosx + tanx = 1/cosx + sinx/cosxsinx/cosx = tanx therfore1/cosx + tanx = 1/cosx + tanxDo you think this is correct? Subtract both sides by 1/cosx + tanx:0 = 0So, therefore, this is correct!(BTW, I'm in Grade 6! :P)
(sin(x)cot(x) - cos(x))/tan(x)(Multiply by tan(x)/tan(x))sin(x) - cos(x)tan(x)(tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x))sinx - cos(x)(sin(x)/cos(x))(cos(x) cancels out)sin(x) - sin(x)0