tan(9) + tan(81) - tan(27) - tan(63) = 4
tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) + tan (C-A)=0 tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) - tan (A-C)=0 tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) = tan (A-C) (A-B) + (B-C) = A-C So we can solve tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) = tan (A-C) by first solving tan x + tan y = tan (x+y) and then substituting x = A-B and y = B-C. tan (x+y) = (tan x + tan y)/(1 - tan x tan y) So tan x + tan y = (tan x + tan y)/(1 - tan x tan y) (tan x + tan y)tan x tan y = 0 So, tan x = 0 or tan y = 0 or tan x = - tan y tan(A-B) = 0 or tan(B-C) = 0 or tan(A-B) = - tan(B-C) tan(A-B) = 0 or tan(B-C) = 0 or tan(A-B) = tan(C-B) A, B and C are all angles of a triangle, so are all in the range (0, pi). So A-B and B-C are in the range (- pi, pi). At this point I sketched a graph of y = tan x (- pi < x < pi) By inspection I can see that: A-B = 0 or B-C = 0 or A-B = C-B or A-B = C-B +/- pi A = B or B = C or A = C or A = C +/- pi But A and C are both in the range (0, pi) so A = C +/- pi has no solution So A = B or B = C or A = C A triangle ABC has the property that tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) + tan (C-A)=0 if and only if it is isosceles (or equilateral).
In general, you cannot. An infinite number divided by any non-zero number is still infinite. An infinite number divided by another infinite number may or may not be infinite.
tan 45 = 1
tan 2 pi = tan 360º = 0
y=tanx cannot be expressed as a Fourier series, since it has infinite number of infinite discontinuity. Dirichlet’s condition or the sufficient condition for a function f(x) to be expressed as a Fourier series. - f(x) is single valued, finite and periodic. - f(x) has a finite number of finite discontinuities. f(x) has a finite number of maxima and minima. - f(x) has no infinite discontinuity.
tan(9) + tan(81) - tan(27) - tan(63) = 4
Tan Tan
tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) + tan (C-A)=0 tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) - tan (A-C)=0 tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) = tan (A-C) (A-B) + (B-C) = A-C So we can solve tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) = tan (A-C) by first solving tan x + tan y = tan (x+y) and then substituting x = A-B and y = B-C. tan (x+y) = (tan x + tan y)/(1 - tan x tan y) So tan x + tan y = (tan x + tan y)/(1 - tan x tan y) (tan x + tan y)tan x tan y = 0 So, tan x = 0 or tan y = 0 or tan x = - tan y tan(A-B) = 0 or tan(B-C) = 0 or tan(A-B) = - tan(B-C) tan(A-B) = 0 or tan(B-C) = 0 or tan(A-B) = tan(C-B) A, B and C are all angles of a triangle, so are all in the range (0, pi). So A-B and B-C are in the range (- pi, pi). At this point I sketched a graph of y = tan x (- pi < x < pi) By inspection I can see that: A-B = 0 or B-C = 0 or A-B = C-B or A-B = C-B +/- pi A = B or B = C or A = C or A = C +/- pi But A and C are both in the range (0, pi) so A = C +/- pi has no solution So A = B or B = C or A = C A triangle ABC has the property that tan (A-B) + tan (B-C) + tan (C-A)=0 if and only if it is isosceles (or equilateral).
Tan Cerca...Tan Lejos was created in 1975.
The airport code for Tan Tan Airport is TTA.
cot(15)=1/tan(15) Let us find tan(15) tan(15)=tan(45-30) tan(a-b) = (tan(a)-tan(b))/(1+tan(a)tan(b)) tan(45-30)= (tan(45)-tan(30))/(1+tan(45)tan(30)) substitute tan(45)=1 and tan(30)=1/√3 into the equation. tan(45-30) = (1- 1/√3) / (1+1/√3) =(√3-1)/(√3+1) The exact value of cot(15) is the reciprocal of the above which is: (√3+1) /(√3-1)
If the angles are measured in degrees or gradians, then: tan 3 > tan 2 > tan 1 If the angles are measured in radians, then: tan 1 > tan 3 > tan 2.
tan(135) = -tan(180-135) = -tan(45) = -1
Oh honey, you're throwing some trigonometry at me? Alright, buckle up. The sum of tan20tan32 plus tan32tan38 plus tan38tan20 is equal to 1. Just plug in those values and watch the magic happen. Math can be sassy too, you know.
the answer is infinite to the second power
tan :)