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Yes. Cosine is adjacent side over hypothenuse. Adjacent side is the same sign when x is positive or negative.

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Q: Does cos x equal cos negative x?
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Related questions

What is cos of a negative angle?

The cosine function is an even function which means that cos(-x) = cos(x). So, if cos of an angle is positive, then the cos of the negative of that angle is positive and if cos of an angle is negative, then the cos of the negative of that angle is negaitive.


Why does cos x equal cos -x?

cos x equals cos -x because cos is an even function. An even function f is such that f(x) = f(-x).


What is Cos squared x equal to?

Cos^2 x = 1 - sin^2 x


Derivative of cosx?

The derivative of cos(x) is negative sin(x). Also, the derivative of sin(x) is cos(x).


When does cos x equal -sin x?

The derivative of cos(x) equals -sin(x); therefore, the anti-derivative of -sin(x) equals cos(x).


What is the derivative of negative sinx?

-cos(x)


Why does cos negative theta equal cos postitive theta?

The cosine is simply the x-coordinate of the unitary circle. It helps to draw the circle, and the sine and cosine (x and y coordinates), to visualize this. The y-coordinate is the same for a positive angle and for the corresponding negative angle.


What is cos2x equal to?

You can look up "trigonometric identities" in Wikipedia.Cos(2x), among other things, is equal to (cos x)^2 - (sin x)^2 If you meant cos squared x, or (cos x)^2, that is equal to (1 + cos(2x))/2


How many solutions does cos squared minus two cos equal three?

One solution. (cos x)2 - 2cos x = 3 Factor: (cos x - 3)(cos x + 1)= 0 cos x = {-1, 3} Solve: For cos x = -1, x = 180 deg No solution for cos x = 3


Why does the derivative of sin x equal - cos x?

It isn't. The derivate of sin x = cos x.It isn't. The derivate of sin x = cos x.It isn't. The derivate of sin x = cos x.It isn't. The derivate of sin x = cos x.


Cos plus tansin equals sec?

Start on the left-hand side. cos(x) + tan(x)sin(x) Put tan(x) in terms of sin(x) and cos(x). cos(x) + [sin(x)/cos(x)]sin(x) Multiply. cos(x) + sin2(x)/cos(x) Make the denominators equal. cos2(x)/cos(x) + sin2(x)/cos(x) Add. [cos2(x) + sin2(x)]/cos(x) Use the Pythagorean Theorem to simplify. 1/cos(x) Since 1/cos(x) is the same as sec(x)- the right-hand side- the proof is complete.


What does cos2x equal?

Cos(2x) = cos^2(x) - sin^2(x) = 2 cos^2(x) - 1 = 1 - 2 sin^2(x).Source: ChaCha.com