The proof of this trig identity relies on the pythagorean trig identity, the most famous trig identity of all time: sin2x + cos2x = 1, or 1 - cos2x = sin2x. 1 + cot2x = csc2x 1 = csc2x - cot2x 1 = 1/sin2x - cos2x/sin2x 1 = (1 - cos2x)/sin2x ...using the pythagorean trig identity... 1 = sin2x/sin2x 1 = 1 So this is less of a proof and more of a verification.
The derivative is 1/(1 + cosx)
The derivative of 2x2 + 4x + 8 is 4x+4.
For simplicity's sake, X represent theta. This is the original problem: sin2x+ cosX = cos2X + sinX This handy-dandy property is key for all you trig fanatics: sin2x+ cos2x = 1 With this basic property, you can figure out that sin2 x=1-cos2x and cos2x= 1-sin2x So we can change the original problem to: 1-cos2x+cosx = 1-sin2X + sinX -cos2x + cosx =-sin2x + sinX Basic logic tells you that one of two things are happening. sin2x is equal to sinx AND cos2x is equal to cosx. The only two numbers that are the same squared as they are to the first power are 1 and 0. X could equal 0, which has a cosine of 1 and a sine of 0, or it could equal pi/2, which has a cosine of 0 and a sine of 1. The other possibility whatever x (or theta) is, it's sine is equal to its cosine. This happens twice on the unit circle, once at pi/4 and once at 5pi/4. If you're solving for all possible values for x and not just a set range on the unit circle, then the final solution is: x=0+2pin x=pi/2+2pin x= pi/4 +2pin x=5pi/4+2pin (note that n is a variable)
Derivative of 1/x 1/x = x-1 Take the derivative (-1)x(-1-1) = -x-2 = 1/x2
(-x+tanx)'=-1+(1/cos2x)
It is sec2x, this is the same as 1/cos2x.
(1 - tan2x)/(1 + tan2x) = (1 - sin2x/cos2x)/(1 + sin2x/cos2x) = (cos2x - sin2x)/(cos2x + sin2x) = (cos2x - sin2x)/1 = (cos2x - sin2x) = cos(2x)
Using x instead of theta, cos2x/cosec2x + cos4x = cos2x*sin2x + cos4x = cos2x*(sin2x + cos2x) = cos2x*1 = cos2x
sin2x / (1-cos x) = (1-cos2x) / (1-cos x) = (1-cos x)(1+cos x) / (1-cos x) = (1+cos x) sin2x=1-cos2x as sin2x+cos2x=1 1-cos2x = (1-cos x)(1+cos x) as a2-b2=(a-b)(a+b)
[sinx - cos2x - 1] is already factored the most it can be
First we look at the double-angle identity of cos2x. We know that: cos2x = cos^2x - sin^2x cos2x = [1-sin^2x] - sin^2x.............. (From sin^2x + cos^2x = 1, cos^2x = 1 - sin^2x) Therefore: cos2x = 1 - 2sin^2x 2sin^2x = 1 - cos2x sin^2x = 1/2(1-cos2x) sin^2x = 1/2 - cos2x/2 And intergrating, we get: x/2 - sin2x/4 + c...................(Integral of cos2x = 1/2sin2x; and c is a constant)
The proof of this trig identity relies on the pythagorean trig identity, the most famous trig identity of all time: sin2x + cos2x = 1, or 1 - cos2x = sin2x. 1 + cot2x = csc2x 1 = csc2x - cot2x 1 = 1/sin2x - cos2x/sin2x 1 = (1 - cos2x)/sin2x ...using the pythagorean trig identity... 1 = sin2x/sin2x 1 = 1 So this is less of a proof and more of a verification.
1
it is not possible to get the Integral of cos2x log cosx-sinx coax plus since there are no symbols given in the equation.
d/dx of lnx is 1/x Therefore the derivative is 1/(1+x)
Using chain rule:integral of cos2x dx= 1/2 * sin2x + C