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No, (sinx)^2 + (cosx)^2=1 is though

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11y ago
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Q: Is 1- cos 2 x 1 plus cos 2 x equals sin squared x cos squared x an identity?
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Related questions

What is Sin squared x - Cos squared x divided by 1 - Tan squared x equals cos squared x?

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What equals 1 cos squared x divided by cos squared x?

1. Anything divided by itself always equals 1.


How do you prove cot squared theta plus cos squared theta plus sin squared theta scs squared theta?

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What is sin squared x equals cos squared minus 2 sin x?

Since the word 'equals' appears in your questions it might be what is called a trigonometric identity, in other words a statement about a relationship between various trigonometric values.


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How do you prove that the sin over one minus the cosine minus one plus the cosine over the sine equals zero?

Multiply both sides by sin(1-cos) and you lose the denominators and get (sin squared) minus 1+cos times 1-cos. Then multiply out (i.e. expand) 1+cos times 1-cos, which will of course give the difference of two squares: 1 - (cos squared). (because the cross terms cancel out.) (This is diff of 2 squares because 1 is the square of 1.) And so you get (sin squared) - (1 - (cos squared)) = (sin squared) + (cos squared) - 1. Then from basic trig we know that (sin squared) + (cos squared) = 1, so this is 0.


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