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Yes. To simplify such an expression, it normally helps to convert all trigonometric functions to sines and cosines.
(1 + tanx)/sinxMultiply by sinx/sinxsinx + tanxsinxDivide by sin2x (1/sin2x) = cscxcscx + tan(x)csc(x)tanx = sinx/cosx and cscx = 1/sinxcscx + (sinx/cosx)(1/sinx)sinx cancels outcscx + 1/cosx1/cosx = secxcscx + secx
sinx cscx = 1 is the same thing as sinx(1/sinx) = 1 which is the same as sinx/sinx = 1. This evaluates to 1=1, which is true.
(1-cosx)/sinx + sinx/(1- cosx) = [(1 - cosx)*(1 - cosx) + sinx*sinx]/[sinx*(1-cosx)] = [1 - 2cosx + cos2x + sin2x]/[sinx*(1-cosx)] = [2 - 2cosx]/[sinx*(1-cosx)] = [2*(1-cosx)]/[sinx*(1-cosx)] = 2/sinx = 2cosecx
secx = 1/cosxand 1/cotx = tanx, therefore1/cosx + tanx = 1 + sinx/cosx, andsin/cos = tanx, therefore1/cosx + tanx = 1 + tanx, therefore1/cosx = 1, therfore1 = cosx.So, therfore, it is not neccesarily true.But if you meansecx plus 1 divided by cotx equals (1 plus sinx) divided by cosx(this is probably what you mean) Let's start over!secx = 1/cosxand 1/cotx = tanx, therefore1/cosx + tanx = (1+sinx)/cosx therefore1/cosx + tanx = 1/cosx + sinx/cosxsinx/cosx = tanx therfore1/cosx + tanx = 1/cosx + tanxDo you think this is correct? Subtract both sides by 1/cosx + tanx:0 = 0So, therefore, this is correct!(BTW, I'm in Grade 6! :P)
Trig functions have their own special derivatives that you will have to memorize. For instance: the derivative of sinx is cosx. The derivative of cosx is -sinx The derivative of tanx is sec2x The derivative of cscx is -cscxcotx The derivative of secx is secxtanx The derivative of cotx is -csc2x