yes
* * * * *
Absolutely not! If it is divisible by 9 it must be divisible by 3.
Here, if you want it, is a proof:
x is divisible by 9 implies that x = 9*y for some integer y.
Now 9 = 3*3, so writing 3*3 instead of 9 gives
x = (3*3)*y
so, by the associative property of multiplication,
x = 3*(3*y)
and then, by the closure of multiplication of integers, 3*y is also an integer. Say, z, for example.
That is to say, x = 3*z
which is equivalent to saying that x is divisible by 3.
Chat with our AI personalities
Because 9 is divisible by 3, this is like the rule where if a number is divisible by 2 and 3 it is also divisible by 6.
Because any number that has 6 as a factor will also have the factors of 6 as factors.
Using the tests for divisibility:Divisible by 3:Add the digits and if the sum is divisible by 3, so is the original number: 6 + 8 + 4 = 18 which is divisible by 3, so 684 is divisible by 3Divisible by 6:Number is divisible by 2 and 3: Divisible by 2:If the number is even (last digit divisible by 2), then the whole number is divisible by 2. 684 is even so 684 is divisible by 2.Divisible by 3:Already shown above to be divisible by 3. 684 is divisible by both 2 & 3 so 684 is divisible by 6Divisible by 9:Add the digits and if the sum is divisible by 9, so is the original number: 6 + 8 + 4 = 18 which is divisible by 9, so 684 is divisible by 9Thus 684 is divisible by all 3, 6 & 9.
Multiples of 9 and 6 are also divisible by three, the reverse is not true. 15 is divisible by 3, but not 6 or 9. 27 is divisible by 3 and 9, but not 6. 12 is divisible by 3 and 6, but not 9. 54 is divisible by 3, 6 and 9.
6
The one that has a 3, 6 or 9 there.
Every number is divisible by any non-zero number. Furthermore, 405 is evenly divisible by both 3 and 9.