To determine what negative sine squared plus cosine squared is equal to, start with the primary trigonometric identity, which is based on the pythagorean theorem...sin2(theta) + cos2(theta) = 1... and then solve for the question...cos2(theta) = 1 - sin2(theta)2 cos2(theta) = 1 - sin2(theta) + cos2(theta)2 cos2(theta) - 1 = - sin2(theta) + cos2(theta)
Use these identities: sin2(x) + cos2(x) = 1, and tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x) For clarity, the functions are written here without their arguments (the "of x" part). (1 - sin2) = cos2 (1 + tan2) = (1 + sin2/cos2) = (cos2+sin2) / cos2 = 1/cos2 Multiply them: (cos2) times (1/cos2) = 1'QED'
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cos(3t) = cos(2t + t) = cos(2t)*cos(t) - sin(2t)*sin(t) = [cos2(t) - sin2(t)]*cos(t) - 2*cos(t)*sin(t)*sin(t) = [cos2(t) - sin2(t)]*cos(t) - 2*cos(t)*sin2(t) then, since sin2(t) = 1 - cos2(t) = [2*cos2(t) - 1]*cos(t) - 2*cos(t)*[1 - cos2(t)] = 2*cos3(t) - cos(t) - 2*cos(t) + 2*cos3(t) = 4*cos3(t) - 3*cos(t)
If, by trigonometry theorem you mean the "fundamental theorem of trigonometry," sin2(x) + cos2(x) = 1, it is actually the Pythagorean Theorem. if you have a right triangle with a hypotenuse of one, sin(x) is one leg, and cos(x) is the other. The Pythagorean Theorem states that a2 + b2 = c2 and therefore sin2(x) + cos2(x) = 1.
cos2 + cos2tan2 = cos2 + cos2*sin2/cos2 = cos2 + sin2 which is identically equal to 1. So the solution is all angles.
To determine what negative sine squared plus cosine squared is equal to, start with the primary trigonometric identity, which is based on the pythagorean theorem...sin2(theta) + cos2(theta) = 1... and then solve for the question...cos2(theta) = 1 - sin2(theta)2 cos2(theta) = 1 - sin2(theta) + cos2(theta)2 cos2(theta) - 1 = - sin2(theta) + cos2(theta)
Use these identities: sin2(x) + cos2(x) = 1, and tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x) For clarity, the functions are written here without their arguments (the "of x" part). (1 - sin2) = cos2 (1 + tan2) = (1 + sin2/cos2) = (cos2+sin2) / cos2 = 1/cos2 Multiply them: (cos2) times (1/cos2) = 1'QED'
-cos2(x)1 = sin2(x) +cos2(x)1 - cos2(x) = sin2(x)-cos2(x) = sin2(x) - 1
No.Remember: sin2 + cos2 = 1So, in place of (1 - 2 sin2) we can write (sin2 + cos2 - 2 sin2).Massage that around slightly: (sin2 + cos2 - 2 sin2) = cos2 - sin2That's not equal to (sin2 - cos2), which is the original question we were asked.
There is no real significance to sine plus cosine, now sin2(x) + cos2(x) = 1 for any x, where sin2(x) means to take the sign of the number, then square that value.
sin2 + cos2 = 1 So, (1 - 2*cos2)/(sin*cos) = (sin2 + cos2 - 2*cos2)/(sin*cos) = (sin2 - cos2)/(sin*cos) = sin2/(sin*cos) - cos2/(sin*cos) = sin/cos - cos-sin = tan - cot
sec2(x) - tan2(x)= 1/cos2(x) - sin2(x)/cos2(x)= (1 - sin2(x)) / cos2(x)= cos2(x) / cos2(x)= 1
cos2(theta) = 1 cos2(theta) + sin2(theta) = 1 so sin2(theta) = 0 cos(2*theta) = cos2(theta) - sin2(theta) = 1 - 0 = 1
cos2 x + sin2 x = 1 cos2 x = 1 - sin2 x
cos*cot + sin = cos*cos/sin + sin = cos2/sin + sin = (cos2 + sin2)/sin = 1/sin = cosec
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