Take a right angled triangle ABC with the right angle at B, so that AC is the hypotenuse.
Let AC be 1 unit long.
Using the angle CAB, the length of AC and the trigonometric ratios:
sin = opposite/hypotenuse ⇒ sin CAB = AB/AC = AB/1 = AB
cos = adjacent/hypotenuse ⇒ cos CAB = BC/AC = BC/1 = BC
Using Pythagoras:
AB2 + BC2 = AC2
⇒ (sin CAB)2 + (cos CAB)2 = 12
⇒ sin2θ + cos2θ = 1
cos(t) - cos(t)*sin2(t) = cos(t)*[1 - sin2(t)] But [1 - sin2(t)] = cos2(t) So, the expression = cos(t)*cos2(t) = cos3(t)
1 - sin2(q) = cos2(q)dividing through by cos2(q),sec2(q) - tan2(q) = 1
Integral of [1/(sin x cos x) dx] (substitute sin2 x + cos2 x for 1)= Integral of [(sin2 x + cos2 x)/(sin x cos x) dx]= Integral of [sin2 x/(sin x cos x) dx] + Integral of [cos2 x/(sin x cos x) dx]= Integral of (sin x/cos x dx) + Integral of (cos x/sin x dx)= Integral of tan x dx + Integral of cot x dx= ln |sec x| + ln |sin x| + C
Suppose csc(x)*sin(x) = cos(x)*cot(x) + y then, ince csc(x) = 1/sin(x), and cot(x) = cos(x)/sin(x), 1 = cos(x)*cos(x)/sin(x) + y so y = 1 - cos2(x)/sin(x) = 1 - [1 - sin2(x)]/sin(x) = [sin2(x) + sin(x) - 1]/sin(x)
Cosec = -9 => sin = -1/9 Then, cos2 = 1 - sin2 = 1 - (-1/9)2 = 1 - 1/81 = 80/81 and so cos = sqrt(80/81) = ±8.94/9 = ±0.99
cos2 + cos2tan2 = cos2 + cos2*sin2/cos2 = cos2 + sin2 which is identically equal to 1. So the solution is all angles.
Use these identities: sin2(x) + cos2(x) = 1, and tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x) For clarity, the functions are written here without their arguments (the "of x" part). (1 - sin2) = cos2 (1 + tan2) = (1 + sin2/cos2) = (cos2+sin2) / cos2 = 1/cos2 Multiply them: (cos2) times (1/cos2) = 1'QED'
sec2(x) - tan2(x)= 1/cos2(x) - sin2(x)/cos2(x)= (1 - sin2(x)) / cos2(x)= cos2(x) / cos2(x)= 1
No.Remember: sin2 + cos2 = 1So, in place of (1 - 2 sin2) we can write (sin2 + cos2 - 2 sin2).Massage that around slightly: (sin2 + cos2 - 2 sin2) = cos2 - sin2That's not equal to (sin2 - cos2), which is the original question we were asked.
-cos2(x)1 = sin2(x) +cos2(x)1 - cos2(x) = sin2(x)-cos2(x) = sin2(x) - 1
To determine what negative sine squared plus cosine squared is equal to, start with the primary trigonometric identity, which is based on the pythagorean theorem...sin2(theta) + cos2(theta) = 1... and then solve for the question...cos2(theta) = 1 - sin2(theta)2 cos2(theta) = 1 - sin2(theta) + cos2(theta)2 cos2(theta) - 1 = - sin2(theta) + cos2(theta)
cos2(theta) = 1 cos2(theta) + sin2(theta) = 1 so sin2(theta) = 0 cos(2*theta) = cos2(theta) - sin2(theta) = 1 - 0 = 1
3
There is no real significance to sine plus cosine, now sin2(x) + cos2(x) = 1 for any x, where sin2(x) means to take the sign of the number, then square that value.
sin2 + cos2 = 1 So, (1 - 2*cos2)/(sin*cos) = (sin2 + cos2 - 2*cos2)/(sin*cos) = (sin2 - cos2)/(sin*cos) = sin2/(sin*cos) - cos2/(sin*cos) = sin/cos - cos-sin = tan - cot
cos2 x + sin2 x = 1 cos2 x = 1 - sin2 x
Let s = sin x; c = cos x. By definition, sec x = 1/cos x = 1/c; and tan x = (sin x) / (cos x) = s/c. We know, also, that s2 + c2 = 1. Then, dividing through by c2, we have, (s2/c2) + 1 = (1/c2), or (s/c)2 + 1 = (1/c)2; in other words, we have, tan2 x + 1 = sec2 x.